this post was submitted on 24 Sep 2026
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Language is always changing. At one point 'an apron' was 'a napron' while words like 'literally' are no longer literally literal. What are some language battles that have been lost in living memory and what are some others you predict will soon occur?

Edit: Non-english examples very welcome!

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[–] BarneyPiccolo@lemmy.today 5 points 4 days ago (2 children)

Literally and Crescendo are my vocabulary pet peeves. Both have stupidly evolved to include definitions that mean the exact opposite of their true meanings.

Literally is annoying, but Crescendo is impossible. That is a specific musical term with an unalterable meaning. It means a gradual increase in volume, but it has come to mean a climax. Something will be described as "it rose to a crescendo," and that is simply wrong. Something can crescendo to a climax, but not the other way around. If you change it to mean the climax, you can't crescendo to a crescendo, s what's the word for gradually increasing the volume?

Besides, it's a musical term, and musicians will define musical terms, not illiterate civilians.

And if Literally can also mean "similar to," then what word can be used to literally mean Literally?

[–] likebudda@reddthat.com 1 points 3 days ago

Literallyly

[–] Jentu@lemmy.ml 2 points 3 days ago

That's it, I'm going to start using "It rose to a fortissississimo"!

And don't get me started on how the Pianoforte is just called the piano now, leaving out half of its loudness range smh.

[–] MrPnut@lemmy.world 3 points 3 days ago

The one that bothers me most (heard a lot in the software dev world) is when people say process-eez instead of processes, even if it is technically a word now, like ain’t

[–] KaChilde@sh.itjust.works 6 points 4 days ago (1 children)

“Casted”

The past-tense of cast is cast. “The fisherman cast their line into the river.” “The actor was cast in the leading role.”

Casted makes you sound like a child.

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[–] SreudianFlip@sh.itjust.works 4 points 4 days ago

"Reticent" used to mean 'reluctance to speak', or, 'holding your tongue', but in the last decade I saw it being used more frequently as a straight up synonym for 'reluctance'. I wonder if people maybe think it's a more authoritative sounding word?

It's not a change of convenience or cultural drift, just a sign of people reading less and subconsciously trying to hide it, I think.

[–] BanMeFromPosting@lemmy.ml 6 points 4 days ago (1 children)
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[–] Diddlydee@feddit.uk 6 points 4 days ago (1 children)

People using then instead of than. I never saw that 30 years ago.

[–] SreudianFlip@sh.itjust.works 3 points 4 days ago (1 children)

Plenty of bad grammar and speling to go around.

30 years ago fewer people with literacy problems were publicly and obsessively defacing literary norms.

[–] the_abecedarian@piefed.social 6 points 4 days ago (3 children)

also i fear that "comfort" is losing the battle to "comfortability"

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[–] Fleppensteijn@sh.itjust.works 4 points 4 days ago (3 children)

Pronouns getting weird, especially when and is added, like "for him and I" or "her and I's house".

Also excetera for etcetera and mischievious for mischievous

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[–] wieson@feddit.org 2 points 3 days ago

I was one of the first years to have the new spelling rules.
It used to be, that a letter appearing more than twice in direct sequence would be cut to just twice. But that was lifted and is now just how many it should normally be. Examples: Schifffahrt, Brennnessel, Seeelefant.

It used to be, that "dass" could also be spelt "daß", but the rules for "ss" and "ß" were made clearer and more concise.

They also changed the way words could be split at the end of a line. If there was a double consonant in-between the syllables that were to split, the first syllable would take both consonants but now they are split evenly.
immer is split im-mer and not imm-er
But ck makes an exception: knackig is kna-ckig instead of old knak-kig

[–] nore@sh.itjust.works 3 points 4 days ago (1 children)

I don't know if this fits the question, but in Brazil the "Portuguese-Language Orthographic Agreement of 1990" only started to take effect in 2009 (after I was born), in a transition state, and in 2015 it became official and obligatory.

The changes that I still fumble with are diacritics (e.g. "Idéia" -> "Ideia") and hyphens (e.g. "contra-regra" -> "contrarregra").

[–] Dagobah@lemmy.world 2 points 3 days ago (1 children)

Most definitely fits the question, also TIL about the PLOA. Are Brazilian and continental Portuguese different enough to be called dialects? Given its much larger population does Brazil have an outsized influence on Portuguese language development through media?

[–] nore@sh.itjust.works 2 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (2 children)

does Brazil have an outsized influence on Portuguese language development through media?

I don't know since I only interact with other Brazilians, though from what I can remember of early to mid 2010s internet, European Portuguese was preferred over Brazilian Portuguese (as in, when a website or app had a PT translation it'd wouldn't be PT-BR).
Nowadays, I believe both are commonly available.

Are Brazilian and continental Portuguese different enough to be called dialects?

The most common way to refer to Brazilian Portuguese that I've seen is that it's a variant of European Portuguese, I'm not a linguist so I don't know the difference between a variant and a dialect.

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[–] gary_host_laptop@lemmy.ml 3 points 4 days ago

i've never learnt to use tildes in spanish lol i mean i know some rules for that but i just never cared, most people dont use them while texting unless the corrector adds it.

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