this post was submitted on 22 Dec 2025
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If the Soviets didn't give the Ukranians statehood and autonomy, it was to murder and replace them. But when in fact they did give them statehood and autonomy, it was somehow also to murder and replace them. You are operating on an unfalsifiable orthodoxy where if the Soviets did something, it had to be for nefarious purposes simply because the Soviets did it.
This is something that you guys can never explain. I live in America, in the most concentrated hotbed of anticommunist propaganda the world has ever seen, and have never encountered so much as an old Soviet TV show. How the fuck did they "get" me? Countless billions of US government dollars and a century of red scare propaganda have gone towards trying to turn me into someone who froths at the mouth with rage upon hearing the word "socialism". There are entire government initiatives, think tanks, and NGOs dedicated to spreading anticommunist propaganda throughout the world. What is the equivalent of that for a state that has not existed for longer than I've been alive? What does Occam's Razor say about who is more likely to be the propagandized one in this situation?
The soviets did not force assimilation, nor erase Ukrainian culture, not force a famine. Ukraine was a soviet republic in the multinational USSR, with its own preserved culture. "Soviet" is not an ethnicity, but was a multinational identity. The origins of such a story of forced starvation came from the Nazi newspaper Völkischer Beobachter in 1933.
None of us are falling for propaganda here except for you.