this post was submitted on 28 Feb 2026
557 points (97.8% liked)

Memes

54708 readers
1640 users here now

Rules:

  1. Be civil and nice.
  2. Try not to excessively repost, as a rule of thumb, wait at least 2 months to do it if you have to.

founded 6 years ago
MODERATORS
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] draco_aeneus@mander.xyz 3 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

The top 10% of households hold 67% of all wealth. If we assume that every worker produces roughly the same value, that implies ⅔ of value produced by the average worker is being taken.

Of course, 33% is not 15%, but I'd say it's roughly in the ballpark. And in certain cases, there are definitely workers who are exploited to that level.

[–] spacesatan@leminal.space -2 points 2 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago) (1 children)

Wealth is not income. You can't derive the rate of exploitation from wealth inequality.

If we assume that every worker produces roughly the same value

I mean lol again. Especially if you need to stretch as far as the top 10%. Doctors, surgeons, electricians, linemen, plumbers, veterinarians, dentists, engineers, etc are all going to be producing more than double the value of your average retail worker.

[–] draco_aeneus@mander.xyz 0 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

The only way to create wealth is via work, e.g., income. It's not a perfect measure, I concede, since wealth is static and can accumulate over time. However, I think we can still use it as a rough estimation of stolen income over time.

However, this source claims there is a 70% gap between wages and produced value. That roughly matches the number I gave.

[–] spacesatan@leminal.space 1 points 2 hours ago* (last edited 1 hour ago)

That is not what that data is or says.

158 is not 30% of 285 for starters.

Total wages paid are a bit over half of gdp. 55% is notably quite a bit more than 15%.