this post was submitted on 17 Jun 2026
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[โ€“] VictoriaAScharleau@lemmy.world -4 points 4 hours ago (1 children)

none of it is about consent anyway. it doesn't even make sense. do you get consent from doors before you jam a key in them, open them, and put your whole body through them?

[โ€“] when@lemmy.world 2 points 4 hours ago (2 children)

You can't compare living animals with inanimate objects. "Animals can't consent" is a strong argument given against zoophilia. I want you look at the social inconsistent values; where killing animal without their consent is accepted but copulating with animal is condemned by giving the argument that "Animals can't consent". Here the consent is inconsistent and getting used for convenience. [Necrophilia is also condemned on the basis of corpses' inability to consent.]

You can't compare living animals with inanimate objects.

in regards to whether discussing consent makes any sense, yes I can.

[โ€“] VictoriaAScharleau@lemmy.world -2 points 4 hours ago (1 children)

as everyone else has explained, the objection isn't about consent but aesthetics. you've made a strawman.

[โ€“] Postmortal_Pop@lemmy.world 1 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

I disagree. As I understood it, their point was that an animal is a living thing capable of having feelings about a situation and a door is an inanimate object with no feelings or thoughts at all. Dogs can suffer PTSD from being mistreated but a door has no such capacity.

That would make the first comment a false equivalence and their rebuttal valid. In turn we must either present a better equivalent or justify the validity of the original statement.

[โ€“] VictoriaAScharleau@lemmy.world 1 points 52 minutes ago

the capacity to have feelings has nothing to do with he capacity to consent.