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[Ethics] Why do people condemn Zoophilia on the basis of other animal's inability to consent but those same people kill animals without asking for their consent? Why such inconsistency? (lemmy.world)

submitted 20 hours ago by when@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[–] helix@feddit.org 1 points 2 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago) (1 children)

Consent is needed for sexual morally correct intercourse if you want to do it with something capable of having feelings. So having feelings has something to do with consent, because:

Consent is not needed if the thing we're doing it to is inanimate and doesn't have the capability of feeling anything.

[–] VictoriaAScharleau@lemmy.world 1 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

why are feelings important with regards to consent? consent is the ability to understand and agree. feelings have nothing to do with that. the ability to consent has nothing to do with feelings if you don't already have the ability to understand and agree.

[–] helix@feddit.org 1 points 2 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago) (2 children)

Consent is needed if you do something with another being with feelings. Feelings aren't needed to be able to consent. That's simple logic, if you can't understand that you're incapable of discussing that argument.

[–] VictoriaAScharleau@lemmy.world 1 points 2 hours ago

Feelings aren't needed to be able to consent.

so why do you keep bringing it up? it's absurd to discuss consent from something that is incapable of consent.

[–] VictoriaAScharleau@lemmy.world 1 points 2 hours ago

Consent is needed if you do something with another being with feelings.

you haven't shown why you think this is reasonable from subjects which are incapable of consent, nor bothered to define feelings.