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[Ethics] Why do people condemn Zoophilia on the basis of other animal's inability to consent but those same people kill animals without asking for their consent? Why such inconsistency? (lemmy.world)

submitted 2 days ago by when@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[–] Katrisia@lemmy.today 1 points 1 day ago

I agree that it is incoherent. I guess the reasons are complex, but a little peek at these may show us that we have historical attachments for animal consumption. And, then, our moral reasoning was not to end it but to make it as painless as possible (and that's the idea in many places); while you cannot make rape painless, and we don't have a historical reason to defend it either.