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[Ethics] Why do people condemn Zoophilia on the basis of other animal's inability to consent but those same people kill animals without asking for their consent? Why such inconsistency? (lemmy.world)

submitted 2 days ago by when@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[–] sangeteria@lemmy.ml 2 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

Also, not accusing you of this ofc bc it's a common myth of the disease, but that origin explanation over the significantly more plausible "bushmeat + open wound" explanation has been used within homophobic and xenophobic contexts. From wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Misconceptions_about_HIV/AIDS): "Tennessee State Senator Stacey Campfield was the subject of controversy in 2012 after stating that AIDS was the result of a human having sexual intercourse with a monkey.[49][50]" (more detail on Stacey Campfield's wikipedia).

Obviously we shouldn't shy away of discussions of taboo or shameful acts when they are relevant, just be careful about who may hijack your words for nefarious intent.

[–] geneva_convenience@lemmy.ml 2 points 1 day ago

Thanks for the correction I wasn't aware of that.