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[Ethics] Why do people condemn Zoophilia on the basis of other animal's inability to consent but those same people kill animals without asking for their consent? Why such inconsistency? (lemmy.world)

submitted 2 days ago by when@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[–] mojo_raisin@lemmy.world 1 points 10 hours ago

So far every response to be has been straw man args.

Nobody is talking about boiling cats alive, I'm not arguing for the morality of that.

alba people would totally win the evolutionary race and no game theory would bring justice. Doesn’t sound great if your hair happens to be brown or red.

I'm not saying game theory can be used to justify anything, I'm saying it's the basis for morality, it's how morality came to be in our species IMHO. I think agents (things with agency, which are subject to game theory) develop strategies, and morality is based on these strategies. Harming other beings unnecessarily often puts one at risk, therefore harming other beings without need is often bad strategy. I'm not saying that anything that can create benefit is morally OK, this is a straw man, know what that is?

You're speaking as if there's a global, cosmic morality in which harming others is wrong, this is a religious belief, I'm not talking about religion. There are many moralities with different foundations, I explained the basis for mine.