It's a relatively recent thing in the west, too. Not too long ago (well into the previous century) most girls were married off by their 15th or 16th birthday. "Fun" fact: there's still a lot of child marriage in the US to this day: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Child_marriage_in_the_United_States

Japan isn't actually substantially different in this regard -- sure, they have their teen idols, but then so does the US (Miley Cyrus, Justin Bieber, what have you) -- except they draw a clear line between fictional and real child pornography, both legally and in terms of general attitudes. The legal part isn't that strange (lolicon material isn't illegal in most of the US either), but the way general morality permits it in Japan but doesn't in the US is interesting. My guess is that this is partially explained by the US generally being pretty puritanical when it comes to sexuality, whereas Japan is more liberal about it (in their own way), but that can't be the only thing because European countries do not have the puritan culture of the US but also don't share the Japanese tolerance of lolicon.

not intrinsically, at least not for long. in most of europe it was legal up until the 90s and there were even porno mags that ran specials.

...i do compulsive late night wiki walks, before you ask how i know that. i had a period where i read up on what happened to the "flower power" generation with all their "free love" stuff and that came up. i tend to do breadth-first search so i just read through articles while opening all the links in the background, then go down a level, etc etc. when a term like that comes up on a wiki page it triggers your fight-or-flight response.

I don't have scholarly references or anything, but the standard for this varies massively across cultures. Just looking at the West, the age at which it was thought appropriate to get married used to be wayyy lower than it is now. In Ancient Greece, a particular form of pederasty was celebrated as an especially pure form of relationship.

Nowadays we have robust evidence that sexual activity between an adult and a child is severely harmful. However, even this we can't legitimately extend too far cross-culturally, because we don't (as far as I know) have any certainty that this isn't conferred due to the child being the victim of a socially-defined crime. The question one could ask is: given that Ancient Greece didn't categorise their form of paedophilia as a violation, did the children in those relationships therefore not suffer in the same way as modern victims of paedophilia? It's an uncomfortable question, and even asking it will probably make most people nope out, but it's very useful to be sharp about what we do and don't know.

You have misunderstood me...