this post was submitted on 07 Aug 2025
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[โ€“] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 9 points 4 months ago (1 children)

In order for the Soviets to have been guilty, it would have had to happen around 1939-1940. 1940 is the date Goebbels reported, and is accepted by those pinning it on the Soviets, because that would be when the Soviets most plausibly could have done it. Further, again, the Soviet weaponry did not fire German ammunition. The evidence in favor of the Nazis committing the Katyn Massacre are staggering, and the evidence provided by the anti-communist Yeltsin regime are flimsy at best.

Either way, putting it all aside, the Soviets did kill Polish soldiers that resisted them and/or cooperated with the Nazis, Slovak Republic, and OUN. They did not slaughter civilians like the Nazis did, certainly not children. There's absolutely fault to be found in excess, but if we just accept Geobbels' word for everything then that excess becomes parody and we remove ourselves from genuine analysis.