this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2026
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Mildly Infuriating

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[–] icanbrewmushrooms@lemmy.world 11 points 1 day ago (3 children)

Nothing has recently changed about the way people use the word literally. The figurative use of literally has been used in famous works by the likes of Dickins, Twain and at least one of the Bronte sisters, and was first noted in an English dictionary in 1769 - people have literally been using it that way for at least 250 years.

[–] DJKJuicy@sh.itjust.works 3 points 1 day ago (3 children)

Merriam Webster updated the definition of literally to include the "informal" figurative definition in 2013.

Now I use "objectively" because literally doesn't literally mean literally in the dictionary.

[–] RampantParanoia2365@lemmy.world 1 points 8 hours ago

Which is stupid, because the reason it's used that way is for irony. To be funny. If the word is literally defined as figuratively, then it kills the entire reason it was used in the first place.

[–] icanbrewmushrooms@lemmy.world 2 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)
[–] DJKJuicy@sh.itjust.works -2 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (2 children)

Yup. And sometimes bad means bad and bad means good, but bad still means bad in the dictionary so unless I'm in an casual discussion where slang is acceptable, bad still means bad.

Unlike literally which is now defined as literally or figuratively in the dictionary as of 2013.

[–] icanbrewmushrooms@lemmy.world 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

According to Merriam-Webster they included its non-literal use in their dictionary since at least 1909.

[–] DJKJuicy@sh.itjust.works 2 points 20 hours ago* (last edited 20 hours ago)

Well I went back to the Merriam Webster page from 2010 and all the news articles from 2013 about changing the definition of literally are objectively bullshit, so I was wrong.

Merriam Webster Literally 2010

[–] 0ops@piefed.zip 1 points 1 day ago

...aaaand now people are using objectively wrong too

[–] Onomatopoeia@lemmy.cafe 2 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (2 children)

It's changed massively in recent decades.

Just because it had been used occasionally in the past is irrelevant (notably in metaphors or hyperbole). If anything, those literary uses strengthen the denotaton of the word.

1530s, "in a literal sense, according to the exact meaning of the word or words used," from literal + -ly

The dictionary (OED) is built around common usage and clearly shows common usage for a long time.

Just because illiterate Kardashians use it incorrectly doesn't mean the rest of us should.

[–] icanbrewmushrooms@lemmy.world 4 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

You are wrong.

Getting upset at people using literally in a figurative manner is popular these days, but it isn't based on an actual change in usage. There are actually dozens of other words used euphemistically as intensifiers in the same way ('totally', 'absolutely', 'fantastic', 'amazing'), but no one seems to mind for some reason.

[–] village604@adultswim.fan 2 points 1 day ago

The dictionary is infamously slow to change based on common use.

[–] FriendOfDeSoto@startrek.website 1 points 1 day ago (1 children)

It is a bugbear for some, irregardless of when the first example was documented. Loose/lose has the potential to be such an annoyance. For some people.

The word "new" can carry a connotation of "recent" but it more literally implies "the latest version." For all intensive purposes, I did not mean to imply the controversy about the metaphorical use of "literally" was a recent development.

[–] icanbrewmushrooms@lemmy.world 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Fair enough. My comment wasn't aimed so much at you, I just like pointing out that the use of literally as an intensifier has a long and prestigious history.

Also, really sorry to do this to you, but it's "all intents and purposes", not "intensive purposes".

[–] watson387@sopuli.xyz 2 points 23 hours ago

Also, irregardless isn't a word if we're being hardcore grammar Nazis here...