this post was submitted on 24 Apr 2026
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[–] hperrin@lemmy.ca 5 points 9 hours ago* (last edited 9 hours ago) (1 children)

No, it’s ultimately defined in joules.

every 1 K change of thermodynamic temperature corresponds to a change in the thermal energykBT, of exactly 1.380649×10−23 joules.

- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kelvin#/search

[–] Th4tGuyII@fedia.io 1 points 4 hours ago (1 children)

Yeah, of course that is the case now that most definitions have been updated to be tied to physical constants rather than observations that rely on specific conditions...

But the same wiki article you linked literally says otherwise. The Kelvin's magnitude was based on the magnitude of Celcius because of Charle's Law.

I.e. the volumes of gases under the ideal gas law scaled linearly with degrees celcius by about 1/273rd between 0-100C - which led to the prediction that the lowest possible temperature a gas could be was -273C (because that would be the point where it theoretically would have absolutely zero volume).

Which is a long-winded way of saying stop being a smartass. The guy you replied to was just as technically correct as you were, given they said 1k stemmed from 1C.

[–] hperrin@lemmy.ca 1 points 4 hours ago* (last edited 4 hours ago)

But they didn’t say “stemmed”. They said “stemming”. But sure, they’re technically correct in a historical context. I wanted to be more precise about the current definition. Under that current definition, it’s actually degree Celsius that stems from Kelvin.