this post was submitted on 12 Oct 2026
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[–] 6kb_@lemmygrad.ml 4 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (1 children)

Constant capital, which is expended on means of production (machinery, tools, raw materials, etc.), whose value, without any change, is transferred (immediately or part by part) to the finished product; secondly, variable capital, which is expended on labor power. The value of this latter capital is not invariable, but grows in the labor process, creating surplus value.

given this i understand at least in the relation to maximizing surplus value, and the idea marx and lenin both acknowledge where the pocketed value does not go merely to the individual capitalist, but for the sake of the enterprise’s survival, more capital or the expansion of the means of production/improvement

is this a correct understanding (below)

spoiler

Competition among capitalists, and their freedom to transfer their capital from one branch to another, will in both cases reduce the rate of profit to the average. The sum total of the values of all the commodities in a given society coincides with the sum total of the prices of the commodities, but, in individual undertakings and branches of production, as a result of competition, commodities are sold, not at their values but at the prices of production (or production prices), which are equal to the capital expended plus the average profit.

what’s the branch first off, did i i miss something

next part i understand as let’s say enterprise A and B sell the same commodity. obviously both must at least sell the commodity for the cost they expended in production!!! let’s say B is less effective and so the commodity is more expensive at the most basic! but to maintain the same profit margins and capital of enterprise A and continue competing they must upmark it to have the same profits as enterprise A in the end… which should be right, no?

[–] 6kb_@lemmygrad.ml 4 points 1 week ago

In this way, the well-known and indisputable fact of the divergence between prices and values and of the equalization of profits is fully explained by Marx on the basis of law of value, since the sum total of values of all commodities coincides with the sum total of prices. However, the equating of (social) value to (individual) prices does not take place simply and directly, but in a very complex way.

now i do not get it again it feels :(