this post was submitted on 03 Apr 2026
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Europe

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[–] Quittenbrot@feddit.org 25 points 3 weeks ago

Pre-Brexit UK: these rules from Brussels apply to us, but we can shape them according to our needs.

Post-Brexit UK: these rules from Brussels apply to us, but there's nothing we can do about it.

I know which one I'd prefer - but it's not my choice to make.

[–] botbot@feddit.org 11 points 3 weeks ago (2 children)

It is crazy that the EU-regulation for labelling marmelade even existed when the distinction between (citrus) marmelade and jam is only a british thing

[–] glasratz@feddit.org 7 points 3 weeks ago

Some lobby probably was interested in it.

[–] Buffalox@lemmy.world 2 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago)

with other kinds of fruit spread named **"jam" or equivalent terms in other languages. **

Here we have marmalade or syltetøj.
And they used to have distinct meanings, which I am not quite familiar with. I think for marmalade there originally was a requirement of a certain level of sugar content. But IMO such a requirement would not make much sense today.

Seems to me the article is doing a piss poor job at giving a concise description of what the regulation actually means.

And could someone please explain to me why we need to know whether it's a citrus preservatives or any other fruit preservative?
Why do they need the distinction "citrus"?
You can even see what fruit it is on the ~~box~~ jar...

[–] homesweethomeMrL@lemmy.world 3 points 3 weeks ago